# Construction Planning and Management MCQ Civil Engineering

Construction Planning and Management MCQ Civil Engineering Question Answers. Prepare Top Interview Questions and Answers for Civil Engineering Interview Questions, Mechanical Engineering Interview Questions, Electrical Engineering Interview Questions, Online preparation tests for Engineering Students. Latest  Construction Planning and Management  Questions and Answers

1. PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for

a) small projects

b) large and complex projects

c)  research and development projects

d)  deterministic activities

Ans: c

2. Select the correct statement.

a)   Activity arrows in a CPM network are drawn to scale

b)   The tail of an arrow represents the finish of an activity

c)   Arrow bead represents the start of an activity

d)   none of the above

Ans: d

3. Which of the following is a weakness of the bar chart?

a)    interdependencies of activities

b)    project progress

c)    uncertainties

d)    all of the above

Ans: d

4. In the network shown in Fig. 7.1, activities 4-5 can be started only when

a) activity 3-4 is completed

b) activity 2-4 is completed

c) activity 2-3 is completed

d) activity 2-4 and 2>-A both are completed

Ans: d

5. Which of the following is not a PERT event?

a)    site investigation started

b)    sessional work completed

c)    bus starts from Jaipur

d)    class is being attended

Ans: d

6. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities  and  probability   of their  occurrence follow

a) normal distribution curve

b) Poisson's distribution curve

c) Beta - distribution curve

d) none of the above

Ans: c

7. The area under the Beta - distribution curve is divided into two equal parts by

a) most likely time

b) optimistic time

c) pessimistic time

d) expected time

Ans: d

8. According to Fulkerson's rule, what are the correct event numbers corresponding to events A, B, C, D, E, F, and G of the network shown in Fig.?

Fig.7.2

a) 1, 2,3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 respectively

b) 1, 3,2,4, 5,6 and 7 respectively

c) 1,2, 3, 5, 6,4 and 7 respectively

d) 1, 3,2, 5, 6,4 and 7 respectively

Ans: b

9.   With reference to the network shown in Fig. , which statement is incorrect?

a) Events 3 and 4 occur after event 2.

b) Event 7 can occur after event 4.

c) Event 7 precedes event 6.

d) Event 5 follows event 3.

Ans: b

10. In the network shown in Fig.(above Figure), the concurrent and preceding activities corresponding to activity 2-4 are respectively

a) 1-2 and 4-7

b) 2-3 and 1-2

c) 2-3 and 4-7

d) 1-2 and 3-6

Ans: b

11. Which of the following does not represent an activity?

a) site located

b) foundation is being dug

c) the office area is being cleaned

d) the invitations are being sent

Ans: a

12. Earliest finish of an activity is always

a) greater than earliest event time of the following node

b) less than earliest event time of the following node

c) less than or equal to earliest event time of the following node

d)      greater than or equal to earliest event time of the following node

Ans: c

13. Select the incorrect statement.

a) Earliest start of an activity is the early event time of the node it leaves.

b) Latest finish of an activity is the late event time of the node it enters.

c) Latest start of an activity is its latest finish minus its duration.

d) none of the above

Ans: d

14. In the network shown in Fig.  the earliest start time of activity 5-6 is (the number on the arrow shows duration of the activity)

a) 7

b) 8

c) 9

d) 5

Ans: c

15. Latest start of an activity is always

a) greater than or equal to latest event time of preceding node

b) less than or equal to latest event time of preceding node

c) equal to latest event time of preceding node

d) less   than   latest   event   time   of preceding node

Ans: a

16. In the network shown in Fig. (15 fig) the latest start time of an activity 4-5 is

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 7

Ans: b

17. In the network shown in Fig. 7.5, the activity 6-8 can be started only when

a) activity 4—6 is completed

b) activity 3 - 5 is completed

c) activity 2—3 is completed

d) both activities 2—3 and 4—6 are completed

Ans: d

18. If the optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic time for activity A are 4, 6 and 8 respectively and for activity B are 5, 5.5 and 9 respectively, then

a) expected time of activity A is greater than the expected time of activity B

b) expected time of activity B is greater than the expected time of activity A

c) expected time of both activities A and B are same

d) none of the above

Ans: c

19. If an activity has its optimistic, most likely and pessimistic times as 2, 3 and 7 respectively, then its expected time and variance are respectively

a) 3.5 and 5/6

b) 5 and 25/36

c) 3.5 and 25/36

d) 4 and 5/6

Ans: c

20. Select the incorrect statement.

a) Start float and finish float are always equal.

b) Total float can be either start float or finish float.

c) Start float and finish float need not be equal.

d) Start float and finish float are the differences between activity times and not event times.

Ans: c

21. Free float is mainly used to

a) identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of preceding activity

b) identify the activities, which can be delayed without affecting the total float of succeeding activity

c) establish priorities

d) identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of either the preceding or  succeeding activities

Ans: b

22. Whenever an activity has zero total float, then

a) free float of the activity must be zero but independent float need not be zero

b) independent float must be zero but free float need not be zero

c) free float and independent float both must be zero

d) free float and independent float both need not be zero

Ans: c

23. Total float for any activity is defined as the difference between

a) its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity

b) its latest start time and earliest start time

c) its latest start time and earliest finish time

d) its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity

Ans: b

24. In the network shown in Fig. independent float for the activity 3-5 will be (the number on the arrow shows the duration of activity)

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) none of the above

Ans: b

25. In the network shown in Fig. (below fig), the critical path is

a) 1-2-3-4-5-6

b) 1-2-4-5-6

c) 1-2-3-5-6

d) 1-2-4-3-5-6

Ans: a

26. Select the incorrect statement.

a) A critical path always begins at the very first event.

b) A critical path always terminates at the last event.

c) Critical activities control the project duration.

d) Critical activity is the one for which free float is zero.

Ans: d

27. Free float for any activity is defined as the difference between

a) its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity

b) its latest start time and earliest start time

c) its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity

d) its earliest finish time and latest start time for its successor activity

Ans: a

28. Critical path

a) is always longest

b) is always shortest

c) may be longest

d) may be shortest

Ans: a

29.   The independent float affects only

a) preceding activities

b) succeeding activities

c) the particular activity involved

d) none of the above

Ans: c

30. A father notes that when his teenage daughter uses the telephone, she takes not less than 6 minutes for a call and som? times as much as an hour. Fifteen minutes call are more frequent than calls of any other duration. If these phone calls were an activity in PERT project, then phone calls expected duration will be

a) 15 minutes

b) 20.143 minutes

c) 21 minutes

d) 27 minutes

Ans: c

31. What estimate would you give  for the variance in above problem ?

a) 81

b) 54

c) 36

d) 9

Ans: a

32. The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding and succeeding activities is known as

a) total float

b) free float

c) interfering float

d) independent float

Ans: d

33. The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as

a) crash time

b) normal time

c) optimistic time

d) standard time

Ans: b

34. The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is

a) crash time

b) normal time

c) optimistic time

d) between normal time and crash time

Ans: d

35. The direct cost of a project with respect to normal time is

a) minimum

b) maximum

c) zero

d) infinite

Ans: a

36. The reduction in project time normally results in

a) decreasing the direct cost and increasing indirect cost

b) increasing the direct cost and decreasing the indirect cost

c) increasing the direct cost and indirect cost both

d) decreasing the direct cost and indirect cost both

Ans: b

37. Economic saving of time results by crashing

a) cheapest critical activity

b) cheapest non-critical activity

c) costliest critical activity

d) costliest non-critical activity

Ans: a

38. The process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or replanning is called

a) resource levelling

b) resource smoothening

c) updating

d) critical path scheduling

Ans: c

39. Slack time refers to

a) an activity

b) an event

c) both event and activity

d) none of the above

Ans: b

40.   The normal time required for the completion of project in the above problem is

a) 9 days

b) 13 days

c) 14 days

d) 19 days

Ans: c

41.   The constraints in case of resource smoothening operation would be

a) resources

b) project duration time

c) both resources and project duration time

d) none of the above

Ans: b

42. Updating may result in

a) change of critical path

b) decrease of project completion time

c) increase of project completion time

d) all of the above

Ans: d

43. Crash  project duration is obtained by summing the

a) normal durations for all the activities

b) crash durations for all activities

c) crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by taking into account the normal duration for all the activities

d) crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by taking into account the crash duration for all the activities.

Ans: d

44.      Interfering float is the difference between

a) total float and free float

b) total float and independent float

c) free float and independent float

d) none of the above

Ans: a

45.   Assertion (A): Activity 5-7 is critical.

Reason (R) : Earliest finish time and latest finish time for events 5-7 are same Select the correct answer.

a) A is correct but R is not correct

b) R is correct but A is not correct

c) both A and R are correct

d) both A and R are incorrect

Ans: a

46. A tractor whose weight is 20 tonnes has a drawbar pull of 2500 kg, when operated on a level road having a rolling resistence of 30 kg per tonne. If this tractor is operated on a level road having a rolling resistance of 40 kg per tonne, then the drawbar pull of the tractor will

a) reduce by 200 kg

b) increase by 200 kg

c) increase by 250 kg

d) reduce by 250 kg

Ans: a

47. Which of the following earth moving machines has the shortest cycle time?

a) Drag line

b) Hoe

c) Clam shell

d) Dipper shovel

Ans: d

48. Which of the following excavators is most suitable for digging under water?

a) Drag line

b) Hoe

c) Clam shell

d) Dipper shovel

Ans: a

49. The part of a derrick crane include

(i)   Mast

(ii) Boom

(iii) Bull wheel

(iv) Jack

Of these statements

a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Ans: d

50. For which of the following materials, the output of power shovels for a fixed shovel size will be maximum

a) Moist loam

b) Good common earth

c) We|l blasted rock

d) Wet sticky clay

Ans: a

51.    For a given size of bucket, the ideal output of a dragline will be least in

a) Moist loam

b) Sand and gravel

c) Good common earth

d) Wet sticky clay

Ans: d

52. Consider the following statements for a power shovel:

(i)   Output can be increased by reducing the angle of swing for a given depth of cut.

(ii) For a given angle of swing, output will be maximum at optimum depth of cut.

(iii) Output can be increased by keeping the depth of cut less than optimum depth,

(iv) Output can be increased by increasing the size of shovel. Of these statements

a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

d) (i) and (iv) are correct

Ans: b

53. Assertion A: For a given depth of cut, the output of a power shovel can be increased by decreasing the angle of swing.

Reason R: If the angle of swing is decreased, the cycle time will be decreased.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.

Ans: a

54. If the output of a dragline for 90° angle of swing at optimum depth of cut is X, then the output for 120° angle of swing at 120 % of optimum depth of cut will be

a) equal to X

b) more than X

c) less than X

d) any of the above

Ans: c

55.     Output of a bulldozer is

(i)   increased if drawbar HP of the tractor is increased for a given hauling distance

(ii) decreased if drawbar HP of the tractor is increased for a given hauling distance

(iii) increased if the hauling distance is increased for a given drawbar HP of the tractor

(iv) decreased if the hauling distance is increased for a given drawbar HP of the tractor Of these statement

a) (i) and (iii) are correct

b) (i) and (iv) are correct

c) (ii) and (iii) are correct

d) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Ans: b

56. A machine is purchased for Rs. 10,000,00/- and has an estimated life of 10 years. The salvage value at the end of 10 years is Rs. 1,50,000/-. The book value of the machine at the end of 5 years using general straight line method of evaluation of depreciation is

a) Rs. 4,75,000/-

b) Rs. 5,75,000/-

c) Rs. 6,50,000/-

d) Rs. 8,50,000/-

Ans: b

57. An excavator costs Rs. 20,00,000/- and has an estimated life of 8 years. It has no salvage value at the end of 8 years. The book value of the excavator at the end of 3 years using general double declining balance method is

a) Rs. 8,43,750/-

b) Rs. 8,75,000/-

c) Rs. 10,50,000/-

d) Rs. 11,56,250/-

Ans: a

58. If the excavation of earth is done manually then it costs Rs. 10 per cum. A machine can excavate at a fixed cost of Rs. 4000 plus a variable cost of Rs. 2 per cum. The quantity of earth for which the cost of excavation by machine will be equal to the cost of manual excavation is

a)    500 cum

b)    1000 cum

c)     1500 cum

d)   2000 cum

Ans: a

59. Which one of the following surfaces will give highest coefficient of traction while using crawler track tractors?

a) Ice

b) Concrete

c) Loose sand

d) Earth

Ans: d

60. Rolling resistance of a wheel depends upon

(iii) Ground conditions Of these statements

a) only (i) is correct

b) (i) and (ii) are correct

c) (i) and (iii) are correct

d) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Ans: c

61. Which of the following surfaces will give highest rolling resistance for a rubber tyred vehicle?

a) Concrete

b) Loose sand

c) Asphalt

d) Firm earth

Ans: b

62. If the gross vehicle weight of a truck is 30 t and rolling resistance is 30 kg/tonne, then the tractive effort required to keep the truck moving at a uniform speed is

a)    30 kg

b) 300 kg

c) 900 kg

d) 1000 kg

Ans: c

63. The grade resistance factor for an earth moving machine can be obtained by multiplying grade percentage by a factor approximately equal to

a) 2 kg/tonne

b) 6 kg/tonne

c) 9 kg/tonne

d) 20 kg/tonne

Ans: c

64.   A wheeled tractor hauling unit is working on firm earth. The total loaded weight distribution of this unit is:

Drive wheels : 25000 kg

Scraper wheels  : 10000 kg

If the coefficient of traction for wheeled tractor on firm earth is 0.5, the rimpull which this tractor can exert   without slipping is

a) 10000 kg

b) 12500 kg

c) 22500 kg

d) 5000 kg

Ans: b

65. A four wheel trac*or whose operating weight is 12000 kg is pulled along a road having a rising slope of 2% at a uniform speed. Assume grade resistance factor = 10 kg/tonne. The tension in the tow cable is 720 kg. The rolling resistance of the road will be

a) 20 kg/tonne

b) 30 kg/tonne

c) 40 kg/tonne

d) 50 kg/tonne

Ans: c

66. An earth moving equipment costs Rs. 5,00,000/- and has an estimated life of 10 years and a salvage value of Rs. 50,000/-.What uniform annual amount must be set aside at the end of each of the 10 years for replacement if the interest rate is 8% per annum and if the sinking fund factor at 8% per annum interest rate for 10 years is 0.069 ?

a) Rs. 31050

b) Rs. 34500

c) Rs. 37950

d) Rs. 50000

Ans: a

67. A machine costs Rs. 20000 and its useful life is 8 years. The money is borrowed at 8% interest per annum. The capital recovery factor at 8% interest per annum for 8 years is 0.174. The annual equipment cost of the machine will be

a) Rs.1740

b) Rs.3480

c) Rs.5220

d) Rs.6960

Ans: b

68. The probability of completion of any activity within its expected time is

a) 50%

b) 84.1%

c) 99.9%

d) 100%

Ans: a

69. If the scheduled completion time of a project is more than the earliest expected time for completion of the project, then the probability of completion of the project within the scheduled completion time will be

a) 50%

b) less than 50%

c) more than 50%

d) 100%

Ans: c

70. If the expected time for completion of a project is 10 days with a standard deviation of 2 days, the expected time of completion of the project with 99.9% probability is

a) 4 days

b) 6 days

c) 10 days

d) 16 days

Ans: d

71. If the expected time of completion of a project is 60 weeks with a standard deviation of 5 weeks, the probability of completing the project in 50 weeks and 65 weeks respectively will be

a) 2.3% and 84.1%

b) 97.7% and 84.1%

c) 97.7 % and 15.9%

d) 15.9% and 97.7%

Ans: a

72. A tractor shovel has a purchase price of Rs. 4.7 lacs and could save the organization an amount of rupees one lac per year on operating costs. The salvage value after the amortization period is 10% of the purchase price. The capital recovery period will be

a) 3.7 years

b) 4.23 years

c) 5 years

d) 7.87 years

Ans: b

73. Consider the following statements:

In the bar chart planning

1. interdependence of the operations cannot be portrayed.

2. progress of work can be measured.

3. spare time of the activities can be determined.

4. schedule cannot be updated.

Of these statements

a) 1,2 and 3 are correct

b) 1 and 4 are correct

c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

d) 1,2 and 4 are correct

Ans: b

74. Consider the following statements :

In the critical path method of construction planning, Free Float can be.

1. greater than Total Float.

2. greater than Independent Float

3. equal to Total Float.

4. less than Independent Float. Of these statements

a) 1 and 4 are correct

b) 2 and 3 are correct

c) 1 and 4 are correct

d) 1 and 2 are correct

Ans: b

75.     In time-cost optimization of a project, crashing is done.

a) on all the activities

b) on all the activities lying on the critical path

c) only on activities lying on the orginal critical path and having flatter cost slopes

d) on original critical activities and those that become critical at any stage of crashing in the order of ascending cost slope

Ans: d

76. During the construction period, price variation clause in contracts caters to

a) increase in rates of only important materials

b) variation in cost in materials element, labour element and petrol-oil-lubricant element

c) variation in total cost of the project on an ad hoc basis

d) rate of inflation

Ans: b

77. At a work site, statistical quality control of concrete means

a) measurement of risks to eliminate failures

b) applying the theory' of probability to sample testing or inspection

c) reduction in wastage of inspection costs

d) reduction in costs for the removal of defects

Ans: b

78. In India, are prefabricated components costlier than those of traditional cast-in-situ items that the prefabricated components replace?

a) Yes, because of heavier overheads and handling cost

b) Yes, because of the very high order of quality control for the factory made components

c) No, because of repetitive manufacture of a number of elements

d) No, because of savings in site labour

Ans: c

79. Mobilization advance up to 10% of the cost of work is given to a contractor

a) on commencement of work at site for payment of loan taken by him

b) for the purchase of construction materials

c) for the payment of advances to labour and other staff

d) for all activities required to start the work at site on finalization of the contract document

Ans: d

80. Sinking fund is

a) the fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over

b) raised to meet maintenance costs

c) the total sum to be paid to the municipal authorities by the tenants

d) a part of the money kept in reserve for providing additional structures and structural modifications

Ans: a

81. A contractor has two options;© : Invest his money in project A or (II) : Invest his money in project B. If he decides to invest in A, for every rupee invested, he is assured of doubling his money in ten years. If he decides to invest in B, he is assured of making his money 1.5 times in 5 years. If the contractor values his money at 10% interest rate, he

a) should invest in neither of the two projects

b) could invest in either of the two projects

c) should invest in project A

d) should invest in project B

Ans: a

82. In resources levelling

a) total duration of project is reduced

b) total duration of project is increased

c) uniform demand of resources is achieved

d) cost of project is controlled

Ans: c

83. The original cost of an equipment is Rs.10,000/-. Its salvage value at the end of its total useful life of five years is Rs. 1,000/-. Its book value at the end of two years of its useful life (as per straight line method of evaluation of depreciation) will be

a) Rs. 8,800/-

b) Rs. 7,600/-

c) Rs. 6,400/-

d) Rs. 5,000/-

Ans: c

84. Consider the following features/factors :

1. Projects are of the non-repetitive type.

2. Time required need not be known.

3. Time required is known precisely.

4. Events have been established for planning.

5. Emphasis  is given to  activities of project.

PERT is preferred for planning because of

a) 1,2 and 4

b) 3,4 and 5

c) 1,3 and 4

d) 1,2 and 5

Ans: a

85. Consider the following activities in a building construction:

1. Concreting of roof slabs

2. Brick-jelly lime concrete terracing

3. Erection of form work for slab

4. Construction of parapet wall in terrace

The correct sequence of these activities is

a) 1,3,2,4

b) 3,1,4,2

c) 3,1,2,4

d) 1,3,4, 2

Ans: c

86.   Consider the following operations :

1. Drilling

2. Blasting

3. Mucking

4. Placing steel

5. Placing concrete

The correct sequence of these operations in tunnel construction is

a) 1,2,4,3,5

b) 1,3,2,4,5

c) 1,2,3,4,5

d) 1,3,4,2,5

Ans: c

87. For a given activity, the optimistic time, pessimistic time and the most probable estimates are 5, 17 and 8 days respectively, The expected time is

a) 8 days

b) 9 days

c) 10 days

d) 15 days

Ans: b

88. The maximum rimpull in the first gear of a tractor while towing a load is 6300 kg. The tractor weighs 12.5 tonnes and is operating along a 2 percent upgrade and the rolling resistance is 45 kg/tonne. Pull available for towing the load is

a) 3425 kg

b) 5515 kg

c) 4350 kg

d) 2975 kg

Ans: b

89. Grader is used mainly for

a) trimming and finishing

b) shaping and trimming

c) finishing and shaping

d) finishing, shaping and trimming

Ans: d

90. Which one of the following is not an excavating and moving type of equipment ?

a) Bulldozer

b) Clam shell

c) Scraper

d) Dump truck

Ans: d

91. The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is

a) Smooth-wheeled rollers

b) Vibratory rollers

c) Sheep foot rollers

d) Tampers

Ans: c

92. For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation equipment used is

a) Hoe

b) Shovel

c) Dragline

d) None of the above

Ans: a

93. The basic action involved in sheep foot rolling is

b) Pressing

c) Tamping

d) Vibration

Ans: a

94. Batching refers to

a) controlling the total quantity at each batch

b) weighing accurately, the quantity of each material for a job before mixing

c) controlling the quantity of each material into each batch

d) adjusting the water to be added in each batch according to the moisture content of the materials being mixed in the batch

Ans: c

95. Consider the following statements:

Wheeled tractors are replacing crawler tractors because

1. wheeled tractors travel faster.

2. crawler tractors are more expensive.

3. track parts of a crawler wear out quickly.

4. crawler tractors have stick control.

Of these statements

a) 1,3 and 4 are correct

b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

c) 1,2 and 3 are correct

d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Ans: c

96. The rated loads of lifting cranes, as percentage of tipping load at specified radius, for crawler-mounted, and pneumatic tyremounted machines would be respectively

a) 80 and 90

b) 90 and 80

c) 85 and 75

d) 75 and 83

Ans: d

97. Sensitivity analysis is a study of

a) comparison of profit and loss

b) comparison of assets and liabilities

c) change in output due to change in input

d) economics of cost and benefits of the project

Ans: c

98. In the time-cost optimisation, using CPM method for network analysis, the crashing of the activities along the critical path is done starting with the activity having

a) longest duration

b) highest cost slope

c) least-cost slope

d) shortest duration

Ans: c

99. Preliminary project report for a road project must contain

a) the detailed estimated cost based on detailed design

b) the several alternatives of the project that have been considered

c) the soil survey, traffic survey, concept design and approximate cost

d) the contract documents for inviting tenders

Ans: c